Adult Health (AH) II Exam 1 Practice Test

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• Recognize risk for other critical injuries in chest trauma: Which of the following is a major vascular injury risk to assess for in chest trauma?
• Which component of the ABCDE bundle focuses on Assess, Prevent, and Manage Pain?
• In the initial management of septic shock, what is the time frame and key steps for antibiotic therapy?
• Pulmonary Edema pathophysiology: What is the primary cause of pulmonary edema?
• When is renal replacement therapy indicated in AKI?
• Which statement correctly describes the compensatory pattern in respiratory acidosis?
• First-line therapy for Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia in immunocompromised patients?
• Increased intracranial pressure, which hyperosmolar therapy option is appropriate?
• Which action is the correct management for suspected occlusion due to kinking or dependent loops in the chest drainage tubing?
• Which measures are essential to reduce infection risk after central venous catheter placement?
• Which statement best describes respiratory alkalosis and its common causes?
• In suspected acute coronary syndrome, when is supplemental oxygen indicated?
• What is a primary purpose of the chest drainage device's suction control chamber?
• Water Seal Chamber Findings: What does absence of tidaling indicate?
• IVC filters are used in which scenario?
• Increased intracranial pressure, which is an initial measure?
• Airway management consideration in inhalation injury from burns?
• What is a key aspect of lung-protective ventilation?
• When HCO3- is low, which labs should be checked?
• How often should endotracheal tube position be checked?
• How do you manage severe hyperkalemia (K+ >6.0 mEq/L) with ECG changes?
• Chest X-ray in the evaluation of suspected PE helps rule out which conditions?
• In hemorrhagic stroke, which statement reflects appropriate initial priorities?
• Complications of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) include which of the following?
• Complications of Low-Molecular-Weight Heparin (LMWH) include which of the following?
• Cardiac Tamponade: Which procedure is emergent and most definitive?
• Which schedule for documenting chest drainage is correct after chest tube insertion?
• Clinical Assessment Cues for Open Pneumothorax: Which sign is most indicative of open pneumothorax?
• Spontaneous Awakening Trial (SAT) requires which of the following safety conditions?
• What is a common cause of feeding intolerance with an NG tube in critically ill patients?
• Ventilator-related air leak: In a patient on mechanical ventilation, an air leak from the chest tube drainage system most likely indicates?
• In cirrhosis with ascites, which strategy reduces recurrence of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis?
• Arterial blood gas with pH 7.30, PaCO2 60, HCO3- 29 mEq/L indicates which pattern?
• PE pathophysiology: Pulmonary embolism causes what physiologic change?
• In renal failure, how should antibiotics be dosed?
• Which condition would cause failure of a Spontaneous Awakening Trial safety screen?
• What is the first priority in the initial assessment of a patient presenting with chest pain suspected of acute coronary syndrome?
• Imaging confirmation of central line tip position after insertion helps ensure proper placement and minimize complications. Which test is typically used to confirm catheter tip position?
• Which statement about protective lung ventilation is correct?
• Which mechanical or interventional method is indicated when pharmacologic anticoagulation is contraindicated?
• In critical illness, what is a common risk with enteral nutrition and how is it prevented?
• Which statement best describes fully compensated respiratory acidosis in chronic CO2 retention?
• What is a commonly recommended approach when NG tube feeds are poorly tolerated in critical illness?
• Flail Chest: Which intervention is most appropriate initially for respiratory compromise?
• Which finding indicates functional suction in a wet suction system?
• In ARDS management, what ventilator strategy helps minimize volutrauma and barotrauma?
• Warfarin reversal in a patient with elevated INR and major bleeding?
• What is the most common electrocardiographic finding in pulmonary embolism?
• Hemothorax is defined as which of the following?
• Which intervention specifically targets reduction of oral bacterial colonization to prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia?
• Sliding-scale insulin: common critique and when basal-bolus may be preferred?
• Which chronic condition is most commonly associated with transudative pleural effusion?
• In diabetic ketoacidosis management for an adult, what is the initial step?
• Which set of conditions defines eligibility for a Spontaneous Breathing Trial?
• On echocardiogram in PE, which finding is most likely?
• Which condition is commonly associated with exudative pleural effusion?
• Spontaneous pneumothorax is most accurately described as which of the following?
• Which option reflects a plausible patient cue for a low pressure alarm?
• A V/Q scan is typically ordered instead of CT angiography in which situation?
• Complications of unfractionated heparin include which of the following?
• Pleural effusion is defined as which of the following?
• Which formula correctly calculates IV infusion drip rate when ordered units per kg per hour, weight, and IV bag concentration?
• In hypertensive emergency with encephalopathy, which intravenous antihypertensive agent is commonly used?
• Abdominal aortic aneurysm rupture: hallmark signs and immediate action?
• Which factor leads to decreased pleural fluid clearance?
• In critically ill patients, what is the recommended DVT prophylaxis approach?
• In a patient with sustained ventricular tachycardia with a pulse, what is the recommended initial management?
• Pneumonia pathophysiology: Pneumonia involves alveolar inflammation leading to which process?
• Which description best differentiates prerenal from intrinsic renal injury based on urine output, urine sodium, and BUN/creatinine ratio?
• Dobutamine in cardiogenic shock: which statement best describes its effect?
• What is the recommended maximum duration for suction passes when clearing a tracheostomy airway?
• If a tracheostomy tube falls out, what is the immediate action?
• What is the target plateau pressure in protective ventilation to minimize barotrauma?
• An ABG shows pH 7.37, PaCO2 60 mmHg, HCO3- 34 mEq/L in a patient with COPD. What is this pattern?
• In hepatic encephalopathy, rifaximin is used as an adjunct to lactulose to achieve what effect?
• Digoxin toxicity: classic signs and antidote?
• What is the gold standard imaging modality for diagnosing pulmonary embolism?
• In ARDS management, what does limiting FiO2 to under 60% aim to reduce?
• Metabolic acidosis is commonly caused by which conditions?
• Which tasks can be delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAPs)?
• Elevated lactate in sepsis indicates what?
• In metabolic acidosis with appropriate respiratory compensation, what would PaCO2 be?
• In sepsis, which lactate pattern is associated with worse prognosis?
• When addressing a low pressure alarm, which actions are appropriate?
• Ischemic stroke: What is the commonly cited time window for tPA eligibility?
• What is the primary function of the collection chamber in a chest drainage system?
• What is the target sedation level during mechanical ventilation?
• Which ABG pattern is commonly seen in pulmonary embolism?
• Pneumothorax in the context of PPV occurs when?
• For hepatic encephalopathy, what is the cornerstone therapy with rifaximin used as an adjunct?
• Iatrogenic pneumothorax occurs due to which of the following?
• In ARDS, which ventilator settings are commonly adjusted to minimize volutrauma and barotrauma?
• In chemotherapy-induced neutropenia, what infection-control measure is recommended in addition to prompt antibiotics?
• Hypercalcemia management in malignancy: after hydration, which therapy is commonly used?
• When PaO2/SaO2 is low, what is an appropriate initial management step?
• VTE risk with estrogen therapy: Which statement best describes VTE risk with estrogen-containing therapies?
• Which antibiotic is an example of anti-pseudomonal broad-spectrum therapy used for empiric coverage in immunocompromised fever?
• Which finding is most characteristic of acute pulmonary embolism?
• In immunocompromised patients with fever, what is the empiric antibiotic coverage to start?
• What is the immediate priority in suspected abdominal aortic aneurysm rupture?
• What is the mainstay of initial management in acute pancreatitis?
• Venous duplex ultrasound is used to confirm which condition in PE assessment?
• What criteria indicate readiness to wean a patient from mechanical ventilation?
• Using a bolus calculation with ordered 80 units/kg for a patient weighing 80 kg and Heparin vial concentration 1000 units/mL, what is the IV bolus volume in milliliters?
• In BIPAP care, which finding indicates pressure-related skin injury from the mask?
• Insertion Site Crepitus: Which is a recommended nursing intervention?
• In ARDS management, what is the primary rationale for prone positioning as a nursing intervention?
• What action best prevents air from entering the pleural space when a chest tube becomes disconnected from the drainage system?
• In cirrhosis with ascites, which test is essential to diagnose suspected spontaneous bacterial peritonitis and guide treatment?
• Which statement best differentiates transudative from exudative pleural effusions?
• In acute pancreatitis, a key part of initial management is identifying and treating etiologies.
• Insertion Site and Patient Assessment: Which statement indicates crepitus or air leak associated with chest tube insertion?
• Which ABG pattern represents compensation in respiratory acidosis?
• Regarding BIPAP, what is recommended to reduce aspiration risk?
• Which VAP prevention measure should be used if available?
• Massive Hemothorax: Which is the most critical immediate intervention?
• In chest trauma, what is the initial nursing action?
• Complications of thrombolytics/fibrinolytics include which of the following?
• A hypertensive emergency with new-onset encephalopathy is best managed initially with which intervention?
• What are early warning signs of sepsis that should prompt immediate evaluation?
• Which factor contributes to increased pleural fluid formation in pleural effusion?
• For cardiogenic shock with low cardiac output and preserved SVR, which inotrope is commonly preferred?
• In septic shock, which therapy is started if hypotension persists after fluid resuscitation?
• Pulmonary contusion treatment strategies: Which is a pain control strategy used in management?
• Ethical principle when patient autonomy conflicts with family wishes in end-of-life care?
• Atelectasis pathophysiology: What is the most common cause?
• In chemotherapy-induced neutropenia, what is the key infection-management principle?
• Palliative sedation in end-of-life care: objective and ethical considerations?
• Which pharmacologic agent is commonly used to maintain mean arterial pressure in neurogenic shock?
• Early mobility and exercise for ventilated patients should be considered when?
• Which finding is a classic diagnostic cue of tension pneumothorax?
• Open Pneumothorax Pathophysiology: Which statement best describes open pneumothorax pathophysiology?
• Nursing action when suction control chamber shows gentle bubbling (indicating suction delivery)?
• What is a key early postoperative practice to prevent VTE?
• What is a recommended action when the water seal chamber is not maintaining the proper water level due to not enough water?
• What is the purpose of Positive End-Expiratory Pressure (PEEP) in mechanical ventilation?
• Hypernatremia management: how should correction be done?
• How does PEEP contribute to preventing alveolar collapse?
• Incentive Spirometry: Which intervention should be encouraged to promote secretion clearance in chest trauma patients?
• Extrathoracic Damage: What does extrathoracic damage refer to in chest trauma assessment?
• When a high pressure alarm occurs, which action should be performed first?
• When prioritizing which patient to assess first, what sequence is used?
• An elevated anion gap metabolic acidosis is most classically associated with which condition among the following?
• Which laboratory findings are hallmark of DIC?
• What is the immediate nursing intervention for tension pneumothorax?
• In pulmonary embolism, elevation of troponin I or T indicates what?
• Tension pneumothorax: Before diagnostic imaging, what action should be performed first?
• What is a Passy-Muir valve?
• An elderly man with COPD presents in the ER with severe confusion and a respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute. Arterial blood gas shows pH 7.25, PaCO2 60 mmHg, HCO3- 24 mEq/L. How would you interpret this ABG?
• Which statement best describes a typical clinical manifestation of ARDS?
• If HCO3- is high, what should you do?
• Which of the following is a nonpharmacologic strategy for preventing venous thromboembolism (VTE)?
• Open Pneumothorax dressing: If signs of a developing tension pneumothorax occur after applying an open pneumothorax dressing, what should you do?
• A V/Q scan may be ordered instead of CT angiogram when which situation applies?
• In analgesia and sedation strategy for mechanically ventilated patients, what is the first step?
• Priority Nursing Interventions for Open Pneumothorax: Which intervention is recommended for open pneumothorax?
• Which of the following is a direct cause of ARDS?
• What is the common transfusion threshold for red blood cell when a stable non-bleeding adult patient is considered?
• Which finding is most suggestive of DVT?
• Which statement correctly describes the difference between regular breathing and mechanical ventilation?
• In renal impairment, which measurement is used to adjust dosing for renally cleared antibiotics?
• Which action is an appropriate immediate step when a chest tube is dislodged?
• Which strategy helps prevent atelectotrauma in ARDS management?
• In thyroid storm, which combination of initial measures is most appropriate to prevent hemodynamic instability?
• For diabetic ketoacidosis management, under what potassium condition should insulin therapy be initiated?
• Pulmonary contusion in the ICU is generally managed with supportive care. Which ventilation approach is commonly used when mechanical ventilation is required?
• Which is a sign of ventilator weaning intolerance during a spontaneous breathing trial?
• Transfusion reaction signs and immediate management?
• In ARDS, what is the recommended plateau pressure target to minimize lung injury?
• During a COPD exacerbation with hypercapnic respiratory failure, what is the first-line noninvasive ventilation strategy if the patient is alert and cooperative?
• Pulmonary Contusion S/S: Which finding is commonly associated with pulmonary contusion?
• Which of the following is NOT a common cause of metabolic acidosis?
• 3-Sided Occlusive Vent Dressing: In the management of open pneumothorax, which dressing is recommended?
• Hypercalcemia management in malignancy?
• Which statement best describes delegation to licensed practical nurses (LPNs)?
• When PaCO2 is low, what is the appropriate nursing action?
• Which tools are recommended for routine delirium screening in ICU patients?
• An adult with acute decompensated heart failure presents with hypotension and signs of poor perfusion. Which vasoactive agent is typically first-line?
• Tension pneumothorax pathophysiology: Which statement describes tension pneumothorax pathophysiology?
• Which of the following is an indirect cause of ARDS?
• What is the correct sequence in the initial management of status epilepticus?
• Which finding indicates a high risk of airway edema requiring early intubation in burn patients?
• In acute upper GI bleeding, what are the first steps of management?
• During Breathing Coordination (SBT), what should be monitored for signs of trouble?
• Which finding is most suggestive of DVT?
• Which statement is true regarding pharmacologic prophylaxis for VTE?
• Pneumonia clinical findings: Which laboratory finding is commonly associated with pneumonia?
• Noncardiogenic causes of pulmonary edema include which of the following?
• If HCO3- is low, what should you do?
• Which cue indicates a potential airway obstruction in a patient with a tracheostomy?
• Which statement correctly describes uncompensated respiratory acidosis on ABG?
• Which factor is a component contributing to VTE risk after surgery due to inflammatory response?
• A hemodynamically stable patient presents with suspected massive pulmonary embolism. What diagnostic test and initial management steps are indicated?
• Which practice most effectively maintains chest tube patency?
• What is the recommended cuff inflation pressure range to prevent leak and maintain airway seal?
• Air leaks in water seal chamber: Which intervention is appropriate?
• Which drainage description indicates a normal intermediate mix of blood and clear fluid?
• Which of the following is NOT included in discharge teaching for venous thromboembolism (VTE) prevention?
• Air leak in chest drainage system: An air leak most often indicates what condition?
• If PaCO2 is high, what is a typical clinical management approach?
• What is the recommended cuff inflation pressure range for endotracheal tubes?
• Low PaO2 indicates which of the following?
• Which statement best describes the next step in refractory status epilepticus after benzodiazepines and a second-line antiseizure?
• Chylothorax involves which of the following?
• Which statement best describes respiratory acidosis and its common causes?
• Nursing actions to limit secondary injury in chest trauma: Which action best helps limit secondary injury during ventilation?
• Collection Chamber: Which finding indicates hemorrhage or vascular injury requiring provider notification?
• In unconscious hypoglycemia, what is the immediate management when IV access is available?
• Pulmonary Contusion Pathophysiology: Which statement best describes its pathophysiology?
• Empyema is best defined as which of the following?
• In acute spinal cord injury, neurogenic shock is characterized by which hemodynamic pattern?
• During Passy-Muir valve use, which pre-placement action is essential?
• Which laboratory finding is most commonly elevated in pulmonary embolism?
• Which statements are considered patient cues of a high pressure alarm in a ventilator circuit?
• Atelectasis clinical findings: Which finding is commonly seen?
• Pleurisy (pleuritis) presents with which of the following symptoms?
• What prophylaxis is recommended when pharmacologic anticoagulation is contraindicated?
• In end-of-life care, what is the primary ethical objective of using sedation for refractory symptoms?
• Which term describes lung injury from overdistension with high tidal volumes?
• What is the IV infusion drip rate (mL/hr) for a continuous heparin infusion ordered at 18 units/kg/hr for an 80 kg patient with an IV bag of 25,000 units in 250 mL?
• Metabolic alkalosis is most commonly caused by which factors?
• A normal D-dimer (<500) rules out PE when combined with a low or intermediate pre-test probability score. Which statement best reflects this interpretation?
• Transudative pleural effusion is best described as which of the following?
• Pulmonary Edema clinical assessment findings: Which sign is commonly associated?
• Postoperative nursing protocol for VTE includes which components?